Socrates had the view that “knowing begets doing”. Is this always true? That most criminals commit crimes because they know better?


Aristotle’s view that “virtues are found in the mean between two extreme vices”

Who was right?

Both the above quotes from Socrates and Aristotle have different meanings and a different nature behind them; and I think that in my opinion, both of their statements may give reasonable explanations philosophically to knowing begets doing, and virtues being in the mean between two extreme vices. I will analyse the two statements and compare and conclude who was right in the following paragraphs.

From Aristotle’s view, I derived that a virtue is like the mean because it is the intermediate between two vices. On this model a triad is formed with one vice on either end (excess and deficiency appropriately), and the virtue as the mean, or around the half-way mark. .
In Aristotle’s famous work, Nicomachean Ethics, it is stated that the four requirements for virtue are that the person:
(1) Knows what he is doing,
(2) Intends the action for its own sake,
(3) Takes pleasure in it and
(4) Does it with certainty and firmness.

For example, based on Aristotle’s abovementioned statement, cowardice is actually opposed to bravery, while recklessness is an excess of bravery. This portrays two extreme ends, or vices, and a virtue in between of both, as the mean and intermediate factor. This statement can apply to various virtues in life, and

Socrates’ view that knowing begets doing is from his belief that all virtues converge into one, which is the good, or knowledge of one's true self and purposes through the course of one’s lifetime. Socrates' view is often described as holding virtue and knowledge to be identical, so that no man knowingly does wrong.

From the above statements about Socrates’ view, I think that it may be sensible and reasonable, as one has to know what to do, or what he is doing, or...